09 September 2005


[Xenophanes' god] had a body of sorts because totally incorporeal existence was inconceivable, but that body, apart from its perceptual-intellectual activity, was of secondary importance, and so perhaps was its location.
Thus KRS. But I'm not sure I understand the claim that "totally incorporeal existence" was "inconceivable". Is it inconceivable now, as well? Or did it become conceivable at some point? (But not because someone had first conceived of it?)

Also, doesn' t the claim that the deity "without toil shakes all things by the thought of his mind" show that "totally incorporeal" action, and thus existence, has been successfully conceived?
That thought or intelligence can affect things outside the thinker, without the agency of limbs, is a development--but a very bold one--of the Homeric idea that a god can accomplish his end merely by implanting, for example, Infatuation ( )/Ath) in a mortal (KRS, 170).
If it is without agency of limbs, then presumably it is without agency of body. (And, if Xenophanes were some kind of pantheist, then why wouldn't he explain divine action, more naturally, as akin to the way the soul moves the body, rather than in the way that he does, which suggests action from the outside?)